I think the umpire nailed it, prior to Paddy making contact with the ball clause A and B have been satisfied. Paddy's contact with the ball satisfies clause C.
But, on reflection, I suppose DJR's doubt is reasonable. If clause B is nullified the moment Paddy's foot touches the ball and it is no longer classed as "Kicked by another player". However if the umpire was fully cognisant of Paddy's kick not travelling 15 metres, he was actively interpreting it as Paddy marking the previous kick because no one else had touched it and it hadn't touched the ground.
Quite likely, as DJR indicated, this has never been officially resolved.
If it is a legitimate way of marking the ball, will we ever see a player palm the ball out of the air, kick it intentionally to a more advantageous position to kick a goal and then complete the mark?
I'd like to see that.